Math  /  Algebra

Question8. (a) Verify that for all n1n \geq 1, 261014(4n2)=(2n)!n!2 \cdot 6 \cdot 10 \cdot 14 \cdots \cdots(4 n-2)=\frac{(2 n)!}{n!}

Studdy Solution
Prove for n=k+1n = k + 1: The product for n=k+1n = k+1 is: 2610(4k2)(4(k+1)2) 2 \cdot 6 \cdot 10 \cdot \ldots \cdot (4k-2) \cdot (4(k+1)-2)
Using the induction hypothesis: =(2k)!k!(4k+2) = \frac{(2k)!}{k!} \cdot (4k + 2)
We need to show: (2(k+1))!(k+1)!=(2k)!k!(4k+2) \frac{(2(k+1))!}{(k+1)!} = \frac{(2k)!}{k!} \cdot (4k + 2)
Expanding the left-hand side: (2k+2)!(k+1)!=(2k+2)(2k+1)(2k)!(k+1)k! \frac{(2k+2)!}{(k+1)!} = \frac{(2k+2)(2k+1)(2k)!}{(k+1)k!}
Simplifying: =(2k+2)(2k+1)k+1(2k)!k! = \frac{(2k+2)(2k+1)}{k+1} \cdot \frac{(2k)!}{k!}
Notice: (2k+2)(2k+1)k+1=4k+2 \frac{(2k+2)(2k+1)}{k+1} = 4k + 2
Thus: (2k+2)!(k+1)!=(2k)!k!(4k+2) \frac{(2k+2)!}{(k+1)!} = \frac{(2k)!}{k!} \cdot (4k + 2)
This completes the induction step, proving the formula for n=k+1n = k+1.
The formula is verified for all n1n \geq 1.

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